A Maryland man believed to have shot and stabbed his wife and three young children to death before killing himself with a shotgun was having money problems and left a note saying he suffered from "psychological issues," authorities said.
Christopher Wood, 34, may have slashed at least some of his family members in the killings and used a small-caliber handgun on others, Frederick County Sheriff Charles Jenkins said.
He was found dead of an apparently self-inflicted shotgun wound at the foot of the bed where the bodies of his wife and 2-year-old daughter lay, the sheriff said.
Wood's sons were 5 and 4 years old, authorities said. His wife, Francie Billotti Wood, was 33.
Do you think this story is a little different from this one and this one? Is the fact that he also used a knife significant? In some of the other stories I've suggested that the gun availability might have played a part. In this case, it looks like the gun apologists are right when they point out that a man determined to kill can easily use another weapon, a knife in this case. What do you think?
Do you think gun availability plays a part in some percentage of cases? Of all the murders we read about and all the suicides, and remember for every one that makes the news there are another 100 or so that don't, what percentage do you think happen quickly enough and spontaneously enough that the easy access to guns plays a part? Is it a significant percentage (you can define "significant")?
What's your opinion? Please leave a comment.